Sunday, December 1, 2019
December 2019 Reading Quiz
It's December - That Means It Is Quiz Time!
1. Why are 12 year olds predisposed to lateral Salter-Harris ankle fractures?
2. Axial loading intraarticular fracture of the distal tibial fracture is called what?
3. "Jimmy has an OCD of the talar dome, a transverse fracture of the base of the 5th metatarsal and tenosynovitis of the Achilles tendon". Which part of this statement is wrong and why?
4. What 2 things may cause a posterior impingement?
5. How many views should be obtained in a foot x-ray series to properly evaluate bones of the mid and forefoot?
6. Why is surgery often indicated for Lisfranc fracture/ligament injuries?
7. Why is it important to distinguish a Jones fracture from an avulsion fracture of the base of the 5th metatarsal?
8. The presence of Heel spurs indicates plantar fasciitis - True or False?
9. What is a growth arrest line? What can be a cause?
10. What is a widened metaphyseal band? What can be a cause?
11. What is an Erlenmeyer flask deformity? What are possible etiologies?
12. Why don't we have an updated Gruelich and Pyle?
13. The patient has a butterfly vertebra, what type of scoliosis may this patient have?
14. Patient has kyphosis, dural ectasia and rib anomalies. What etiology of scoliosis should we consider? Why is it important to determine this etiology?
15. The patient has painful scoliosis - should I tell the patient that they likely just have idiopathic scoliosis and not worry about it? Why or why not?
16. If I say, this scottie dog has a collar, what am I saying?
Bonus - What song would be the theme song for your life? - please share youtube video as part of your response
2. Axial loading intraarticular fracture of the distal tibial fracture is called what?
3. "Jimmy has an OCD of the talar dome, a transverse fracture of the base of the 5th metatarsal and tenosynovitis of the Achilles tendon". Which part of this statement is wrong and why?
4. What 2 things may cause a posterior impingement?
5. How many views should be obtained in a foot x-ray series to properly evaluate bones of the mid and forefoot?
6. Why is surgery often indicated for Lisfranc fracture/ligament injuries?
7. Why is it important to distinguish a Jones fracture from an avulsion fracture of the base of the 5th metatarsal?
8. The presence of Heel spurs indicates plantar fasciitis - True or False?
9. What is a growth arrest line? What can be a cause?
10. What is a widened metaphyseal band? What can be a cause?
11. What is an Erlenmeyer flask deformity? What are possible etiologies?
12. Why don't we have an updated Gruelich and Pyle?
13. The patient has a butterfly vertebra, what type of scoliosis may this patient have?
14. Patient has kyphosis, dural ectasia and rib anomalies. What etiology of scoliosis should we consider? Why is it important to determine this etiology?
15. The patient has painful scoliosis - should I tell the patient that they likely just have idiopathic scoliosis and not worry about it? Why or why not?
16. If I say, this scottie dog has a collar, what am I saying?
Bonus - What song would be the theme song for your life? - please share youtube video as part of your response
Monday, November 11, 2019
November 2019 Unofficial EVMS Reading Answers
Congrats to - Dr. Yoni, Dey, Vosburgh, Lussier, and Bonney!
1. Layering in the joint space - lipohemarthrosis. This signifies either fracture or bone bruise (2 points)
2. Schatzker II. Depression and gap at the articular surface. CT - better define the fracture preoperatively (3 points)
Large arrow shows depressed portion. The smaller arrow points to the vertical cleft.
3. Double PCL sign. Bucket handle tear of the meniscus. Medial (3 points)
4. Anteromedial tibia and fibular styloid. MRI to evaluate for cruciate injury and posterolateral corner injury (1 each for fracture; 1 for MRI, 1 for why; 4 points)
5. Soft tissue mass anterior to the ACL reconstruction - Arthrofibrosis - cyclops lesion; Hates him. Limited extension. ACL reconstruction (3)
6. Comminuted patellar fracture. No. ORIF - Often with circlage wires and sometimes additional screws (3 points)
Bipartite and multipartite patellas - typically are more lateral than diffuse. There is a type involving the inferior patella - but medial is rare. This example is extensively fragmented - therefore it is more likely to be fractured.
7. Quadriceps tear. Rectus femoris (superficial), conjoint vasus lateralis and medialis (middle), vastus intermedius (deep) - (2 points)
8. Prepatellar bursitis. Maid, carpenter, someone working long periods on their knees. (2 points)
9. Limits abduction and may result in anterior dislocation (when hip is placed in forced abduction) (1 point)
10. Stress Shielding - the bone that is not under stress is resorbed (1 point)
11. migration of component, change in alignment of a component with adjacent bone, lucency at bone-hardware interface > 2mm, fracture of cement or hardware in setting of cemented hardware. (2 points)
12. Scapular notching along axillary border of the scapula is often a precursor to loosening and failure (1 point)
bonus - variable answers (2 points possible)
Total possible - 27 points + 2 possible bonus points
Saturday, November 2, 2019
November 2019 Unofficial EVMS Quiz
It's November - Let's Do This
1.
What about this image makes me think of Neapolitan Ice Cream? What is the significance?
2. What Schatzker classification would you give this case? What significant findings would you want to comment on? What next study would you recommend and why?
3.
What is the sign on the lateral images? What is the diagnosis? Which side is most likely involved?
4.
This is an oblique view. What is fractured? Based on imaging findings - what would you recommend and why?
5.
What is the significant finding? How does this finding feel about Odysseus? How would this patient present? What surgery did they have previously?
6.
What is the finding? Is it a normal variant? How is it treated?
7.
What is the finding? What are the layers and list them superficial to deep?
8.
What is the finding? What are possible occupations?
9. In hip arthroplasty, why do we not want a decreased lateral opening angle?
10. What is stress shielding?
11. What are 2 findings that suggest loosening?
12. What is the significance of scapular notching in the setting of a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty?
Bonus:
Share a Youtube video of your current favorite song or song that has greatly inspired you and give short no more than 3 sentence reason as to why. All styles and genres are acceptable.
Share a Youtube video of your current favorite song or song that has greatly inspired you and give short no more than 3 sentence reason as to why. All styles and genres are acceptable.
Friday, October 11, 2019
October 2019 Quiz Answers
Congrats to - Dr. Dey, Bonney, Vosburgh, Lussier, and The Great Yoni
Answers!
Spine
1. 3; Anterior (anterior 1/2 of vertebral body and ALL), Middle (posterior 1/2 of the vertebral body and PLL), and posterior (posterior elements, facets, associated ligaments) (4 points)
2. 2 to 3 columns (1 point)
3. 2/3 width of C2 body level at C3 and C4 and no more than 14 mm at C6 (1 point)
4. 1 - Anterior vertebral line, 2. Posterior vertebral line, 3. spinal laminar line, 4 - posterior spinous line; Posterior spinous line is least likely to be associated with significant instability (2 points)
5. 2.5 mm; 5 mm (1 point)
6. Hypoglossal canal or jugular foramen; Cranial nerves IX and XII (2 points)
7. Type 1 - Tip; 2 - waist or base; 3 - extend into the body (1 point)
8. Flexion teardrop (1 point)
9. c (1 point)
10. b (a would have been 100%) (1 point)
15 points
Pelvis
11. d (1 point)
12. inferior (1 point)
13. AP compression, lateral compression, vertical shear (1 point)
14. iliac crest (abdominal muscles), anterior superior iliac spine (sartorius), anterior inferior iliac spine (rectus femoris), inferior pubic ramus (adductor muscles), ischial tuberosity (hamstrings) - (5 points)
15. Anterior wall, posterior wall, transverse, anterior column, posterior column (1 point)
16. Separates the upper hemipelvis from the lower hemipelvis and can occur above, at, or inferior to the roof of the acetabulum (1 point)
10
Hip and Femur
17. medial and lateral circumflex femoral arteries from the profunda femoris artery (1 point)
18. Greater in profile; lesser - hidden (1 point)
19. AVN (1 point)
20. e (1 point)
21. 10-16; males, AA, obese, delayed skeletal maturation (2 points)
6
Total - 31 points +/- bonus
Sunday, October 6, 2019
October Quiz
October Quiz - Get Your Geek On!
Spine
1. Spine stability can be thought of through the ___ column model. How many columns and what make them up?
2. Disruption of how many columns lead to instability?
3. In general, what are the rules for prevertebral thickness in kids?
4.
What are the lines? Of the lines, which is likely the least significant for stability?
5. What is the normal atlantodental space in adults? In children?
6. In the setting of an occipital condyle fracture, what canals might be involved? What respective cranial nerves may be injured?
7. What are the 3 types of odontoid fractures?
8. Anterior inferior corner fragment with widening of the posterior disc space and spinous processes is concerning for what type of injury?
9. Extension injuries are associated with?
a. Widened spinous process distance
b. PLL disruption and facet dislocation
c. tear or stretch of ALL and disruption of the anterior annulus fibrosus
d. tear or stretch of PLL and disruption of the anterior annulus fibrosus
10. 90% of thoracic and lumbar fractures occur?
a. T1-L5
b. T11-L4
c. T12-L2
D. T10-L3
Pelvis
11. Fracture of what suggests the presence of occult sacral fractures?
a. L5 body
b. L4 transverse process
c. L4 body
d. L5 transverse process
e. b and c
12. The superior or inferior margin of the pubic symphysis is allowed some step off.
13. What are the 3 major types of pelvic ring fractures?
14. What are the 5 apophyses and what muscle attachment that are associated with pelvic apophyseal avulsion fractures?
15. What are the 5 primary fracture patterns of the acetabulum?
16. What is a transverse acetabular fracture?
Hip and Femur
17. What is the major blood supplier of the femoral head?
18. When the femur is internally rotated, which trochanter is in profile and which is hidden?
19. What complication increases significantly with the length of time till reduction of a dislocated hip?
20. If a patient is osteoporotic with hip pain and/or inability to walk and a normal x-ray - what study should be recommended?
a. Repeat x-ray with weight bearing
b. CT
c. CT arthrogram
d. US
e. MRI
21. SCFE - what age group and what types of patients get the process?
Bonus - If I form a new band - which name should I choose - Points based on explanation
a. The MR Shims
b. Bros Before Defacography Hose
c. Flight of the Barium
d. Anna Phylaxis
e. Ultra Sound
f. HIDA the Money
G. Clash of the Liver US
H. How Low Can UR Gastrograffin Go
i. I Don't Chiari I Bit
J. Other - your suggestion
Thursday, September 5, 2019
September Quiz Answers!
Congrats to
Quiz based on Musculoskeletal Imaging Requisites Chapters 6, 7, and 8
Elbow
1. Line drawn through the center of the radial shaft should bisect the capitellum on any view is known as the ... Radiocapitellar line (1 pt)
2. If the anterior humeral line passes through the anterior capitellum, you should be concerned for? Distal humeral fracture (1 pt)
3. This is one of the more common sites of rheumatoid nodules? Extensor surface of the elbow and proximal forearm (1 pt)
4. Seeing this on a lateral radiograph is abnormal?
a. Anterior fat pad
b. Spinnaker sail sign
c. Posterior fat pad
d. All the above
e. b and c (1 pt)
5. The second most common pediatric elbow fracture
a. Supracondylar
b. Radial head
c. Lateral condylar (1 pt)
d. Medial epicondylar
6. Medial epicondyle entrapment is when the medial epicondylar fragment is between ___ and ___
Trochlea and ulna (2 pt)
7. Why is critical to diagnose a medial epicondyle entrapment? Entrapped medial epicondyle will fuse to the ulna within a few weeks resulting in permanent disability (1 pt)
8. Fracture of this is the most common bone fractured in the elbow of adults? What are the 2 most common types of this fracture? Proximal radius - 1. Single longitudinal fractue in proxmal articular surface of the radial head; 2. Impaction of an intact radial head into the radial neck (3 points)
9. Essex-Lopresti fracture is? Comminuted fracture of head and neck with dislocation of the DRUJ and tear of the interosseous ligament (1 pt)
10. This epicondylitis is commonly found in baseball pitchers and tennis players? Medial Epicondylitis. This epicondylitis is found in carpenters and golfers? Lateral Epicondylitis (2 pt total)
11. The distal biceps has a tendon and an aponeurosis. The biceps aponeurosis is also referred to by what other name? Lacertus Fibrosus (1 pt)
12. What is Panner disease? Osteochondritis dissecans of the capitellum. (1 pt)
13. What is Galeazzi fracture? Radial shaft fracture and dislocation of the distal ulna. Monteggia? Dislocation of the radial head with fracture of the proximal ulnar shaft. (2 pt total)
18
Wrist
14. Kienbock disease is associated with what type of ulnar variance? Ulnar minus (1 pt)
15. Under what conditions can the extensor carpi ulnaris sheath communicate with the DRUJ? Trauma with capsular injury or rheumatoid arthritis (1 pt)
16. What are the common wrist and distal forearm fracture patterns based on age? 4-10 - buckle fractures of distal ulna and radius; 11-16 - distal radius SH II and dorsal displacement; 17-40 - scaphoid +/- triquetrum; >40 Colles fracture (4 pt)
17. What are the components of the TFCC? TFC, dorsal and volar radioulnar ligaments, ECU, ulnotriquetral an ulnolunate ligaments, meniscal homolgue (5 pt)
18. There is ulnar impaction (ulnar abutment) syndrome an ulnar impingement synrome. What are they and how can treatment of one lead to the other? Ulnar impaction - impingement of distal lateral ulna against the TFCC and proximal carpal row. Ulnar impingement - impaction of markedly shortened ulna against radial metaphysis. Shortening of the ulna for ulnar impaction could theoretically lead to ulnar impingement (3 pt)
19. Where does the scaphoid develop avascular necrosis? In the proimal pole. Why does this happen anatomically? Blood supply to proximal pole enters at the scaphoid waist and courses proximally. Since fracture is commonly at the waist it can negatively affect the blood supply (2 pt total)
20. Stress fracture of this structure is found in carpenters and golfers: Hook of the hamate (1 pt)
21. What was not clearly communicated in the book is that in the setting of an arc of Gilula (pbuh) injury the fractures have Trans- as the prefix and if there is dislocation state whether it is perilunate or lunate. So if you see a scaphoid and triquetral fracture with volarly tilted lunate that maintains alignment with the distal forearm. How would you describe this injury? Transcaphoid, transtriquetral perilunate fracture-dislocation (1 pt)
22. What portion of the scapholunate ligament is most important? Dorsal portion. For the lunotriquetral? Volar portion (2 pt)
23. Pathognomonic scapholunate dissociation can be called when you notice what on a PA radiograph? Distance between the scaphoid and lunate of 4 mm or more (1 pt)
24. End stage degenerative changes in the proximal wrist due to scapholunate dissociation is called what? Scapholunate advanced collapse (SLAC wrist) Similar finding associated with scaphoid nonunion is called what? Scaphoid nonunion advanced collapse (2 pt)
25. What tendons are involved in de Quervain disease? Extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus (1 pt)
26. Symptomatic chondromalacia and subchonral edema in the proximal hamate pole and occasionally the adjacent hamate is seen with what type of hamate? Type II hamate (1 pt)
25
Hand
27. Why is it important to diagnose a Bennett fracture early? The majority of the 1st metacarpal will sublux or dislocate dorsally (1 pt)
28. Gamekeeper's thumb is associated with what injury? Ulnar collateral ligament injury (1 pt)
29. What is a Stener lesion? In the setting of complete tear of the UCL, the thumb adductor tendon aponeurosis is interposed between the UCL and 1st metacarpal (1 pt)
30. What is a volar plate fracture? Avulsion fracture of proximal volar aspect of the middle phalanx (1 pt)
31. What is a jersey finger? Avulsion of the flexor digitorum profundus tendon from insertion to volar base of the distal phalanx (1 pt)
32. What is a mallet finger? Dorsal base of the distal phalanx fracture due to avulsion of the common extensor tendon (1 pt)
33. What happens in a flexor annular pulley injury? Bowstring deformity of the flexor tendon in relation to the phalanges during flexion (1 pt)
7
7 + 18 +25 = 50
Total points possible 50
Bonus - The real answer is all or none - whichever you prefer. As a "Gen X-er", I find the whole everyone in a 20 year span to be all in one type of mindset or anything as a little annoying. My parents are Boomers but they aren't anything like traditional boomers. I never felt that the media portrayal of my generation to make sense and now we are simply forgotten which is fine. There may be some generalities or stereotypes but we are all individuals and different. I am Hayekian in my philosophy - no simple explanation can explain all things. Occam's razor works well for diseases but not for generational descriptors as a predictor of a single individual. I enjoyed your answers.
Quiz based on Musculoskeletal Imaging Requisites Chapters 6, 7, and 8
Elbow
1. Line drawn through the center of the radial shaft should bisect the capitellum on any view is known as the ... Radiocapitellar line (1 pt)
2. If the anterior humeral line passes through the anterior capitellum, you should be concerned for? Distal humeral fracture (1 pt)
3. This is one of the more common sites of rheumatoid nodules? Extensor surface of the elbow and proximal forearm (1 pt)
4. Seeing this on a lateral radiograph is abnormal?
a. Anterior fat pad
b. Spinnaker sail sign
c. Posterior fat pad
d. All the above
e. b and c (1 pt)
5. The second most common pediatric elbow fracture
a. Supracondylar
b. Radial head
c. Lateral condylar (1 pt)
d. Medial epicondylar
6. Medial epicondyle entrapment is when the medial epicondylar fragment is between ___ and ___
Trochlea and ulna (2 pt)
7. Why is critical to diagnose a medial epicondyle entrapment? Entrapped medial epicondyle will fuse to the ulna within a few weeks resulting in permanent disability (1 pt)
8. Fracture of this is the most common bone fractured in the elbow of adults? What are the 2 most common types of this fracture? Proximal radius - 1. Single longitudinal fractue in proxmal articular surface of the radial head; 2. Impaction of an intact radial head into the radial neck (3 points)
9. Essex-Lopresti fracture is? Comminuted fracture of head and neck with dislocation of the DRUJ and tear of the interosseous ligament (1 pt)
10. This epicondylitis is commonly found in baseball pitchers and tennis players? Medial Epicondylitis. This epicondylitis is found in carpenters and golfers? Lateral Epicondylitis (2 pt total)
11. The distal biceps has a tendon and an aponeurosis. The biceps aponeurosis is also referred to by what other name? Lacertus Fibrosus (1 pt)
12. What is Panner disease? Osteochondritis dissecans of the capitellum. (1 pt)
13. What is Galeazzi fracture? Radial shaft fracture and dislocation of the distal ulna. Monteggia? Dislocation of the radial head with fracture of the proximal ulnar shaft. (2 pt total)
18
Wrist
14. Kienbock disease is associated with what type of ulnar variance? Ulnar minus (1 pt)
15. Under what conditions can the extensor carpi ulnaris sheath communicate with the DRUJ? Trauma with capsular injury or rheumatoid arthritis (1 pt)
16. What are the common wrist and distal forearm fracture patterns based on age? 4-10 - buckle fractures of distal ulna and radius; 11-16 - distal radius SH II and dorsal displacement; 17-40 - scaphoid +/- triquetrum; >40 Colles fracture (4 pt)
17. What are the components of the TFCC? TFC, dorsal and volar radioulnar ligaments, ECU, ulnotriquetral an ulnolunate ligaments, meniscal homolgue (5 pt)
18. There is ulnar impaction (ulnar abutment) syndrome an ulnar impingement synrome. What are they and how can treatment of one lead to the other? Ulnar impaction - impingement of distal lateral ulna against the TFCC and proximal carpal row. Ulnar impingement - impaction of markedly shortened ulna against radial metaphysis. Shortening of the ulna for ulnar impaction could theoretically lead to ulnar impingement (3 pt)
19. Where does the scaphoid develop avascular necrosis? In the proimal pole. Why does this happen anatomically? Blood supply to proximal pole enters at the scaphoid waist and courses proximally. Since fracture is commonly at the waist it can negatively affect the blood supply (2 pt total)
20. Stress fracture of this structure is found in carpenters and golfers: Hook of the hamate (1 pt)
21. What was not clearly communicated in the book is that in the setting of an arc of Gilula (pbuh) injury the fractures have Trans- as the prefix and if there is dislocation state whether it is perilunate or lunate. So if you see a scaphoid and triquetral fracture with volarly tilted lunate that maintains alignment with the distal forearm. How would you describe this injury? Transcaphoid, transtriquetral perilunate fracture-dislocation (1 pt)
22. What portion of the scapholunate ligament is most important? Dorsal portion. For the lunotriquetral? Volar portion (2 pt)
23. Pathognomonic scapholunate dissociation can be called when you notice what on a PA radiograph? Distance between the scaphoid and lunate of 4 mm or more (1 pt)
24. End stage degenerative changes in the proximal wrist due to scapholunate dissociation is called what? Scapholunate advanced collapse (SLAC wrist) Similar finding associated with scaphoid nonunion is called what? Scaphoid nonunion advanced collapse (2 pt)
25. What tendons are involved in de Quervain disease? Extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus (1 pt)
26. Symptomatic chondromalacia and subchonral edema in the proximal hamate pole and occasionally the adjacent hamate is seen with what type of hamate? Type II hamate (1 pt)
25
Hand
27. Why is it important to diagnose a Bennett fracture early? The majority of the 1st metacarpal will sublux or dislocate dorsally (1 pt)
28. Gamekeeper's thumb is associated with what injury? Ulnar collateral ligament injury (1 pt)
29. What is a Stener lesion? In the setting of complete tear of the UCL, the thumb adductor tendon aponeurosis is interposed between the UCL and 1st metacarpal (1 pt)
30. What is a volar plate fracture? Avulsion fracture of proximal volar aspect of the middle phalanx (1 pt)
31. What is a jersey finger? Avulsion of the flexor digitorum profundus tendon from insertion to volar base of the distal phalanx (1 pt)
32. What is a mallet finger? Dorsal base of the distal phalanx fracture due to avulsion of the common extensor tendon (1 pt)
33. What happens in a flexor annular pulley injury? Bowstring deformity of the flexor tendon in relation to the phalanges during flexion (1 pt)
7
7 + 18 +25 = 50
Total points possible 50
Bonus - The real answer is all or none - whichever you prefer. As a "Gen X-er", I find the whole everyone in a 20 year span to be all in one type of mindset or anything as a little annoying. My parents are Boomers but they aren't anything like traditional boomers. I never felt that the media portrayal of my generation to make sense and now we are simply forgotten which is fine. There may be some generalities or stereotypes but we are all individuals and different. I am Hayekian in my philosophy - no simple explanation can explain all things. Occam's razor works well for diseases but not for generational descriptors as a predictor of a single individual. I enjoyed your answers.
Saturday, August 31, 2019
EVMS Unofficial September Reading Quiz
OK Rezzies It is time for the -
EVMS Unofficial Quiz based on Musculoskeletal Imaging Requisites Chapters 6, 7, and 8
Elbow
1. Line drawn through the center of the radial shaft should bisect the capitellum on any view is known as the ...
2. If the anterior humeral line passes through the anterior capitellum, you should be concerned for?
3. This is one of the more common sites of rheumatoid nodules?
4. Seeing this on a lateral radiograph is abnormal?
a. Anterior fat pad
b. Spinnaker sail sign
c. Posterior fat pad
d. All the above
e. b and c
5. The second most common pediatric elbow fracture
a. Supracondylar
b. Radial head
c. Lateral condylar
d. Medial epicondylar
6. Medial epicondyle entrapment is when the medial epicondylar fragment is between ___ and ___
7. Why is critical to diagnose a medial epicondyle entrapment?
8. Fracture of this is the most common bone fractured in the elbow of adults? What are the 2 most common types of this fracture?
9. Essex-Lopresti fracture is?
10. This epicondylitis is commonly found in baseball pitchers and tennis players? This epicondylitis is found in carpenters and golfers?
11. The distal biceps has a tendon and an aponeurosis. The biceps aponeurosis is also referred to by what other name?
12. What is Panner disease and where is it found?
13. What is Galeazzi fracture? Monteggia?
Wrist
14. Kienbock disease is associated with what type of ulnar variance?
15. Under what conditions can the extensor carpi ulnaris sheath communicate with the DRUJ?
16. What are the common wrist and distal forearm fracture patterns based on age?
17. What are the components of the TFCC?
18. There is ulnar impaction (ulnar abutment) syndrome an ulnar impingement synrome. What are they and how can treatment of one lead to the other?
19. Where does the scaphoid develop avascular necrosis? Why does this happen anatomically?
20. Stress fracture of this structure is found in carpenters and golfers:
21. What was not clearly communicated in the book is that in the setting of an arc of Gilula (pbuh) injury the fractures have Trans- as the prefix and if there is dislocation state whether it is perilunate or lunate. So if you see a scaphoid and triquetral fracture with volarly tilted lunate that maintains alignment with the distal forearm. How would you describe this injury?
22. What portion of the scapholunate ligament is most important? For the lunotriquetral?
23. Pathognomonic scapholunate dissociation can be called when you notice what on a PA radiograph?
24. End stage degenerative changes in the proximal wrist due to scapholunate dissociation is called what? Similar finding associated with scaphoid nonunion is called what?
25. What tendons are involved in de Quervain disease?
26. Symptomatic chondromalacia and subchonral edema in the proximal hamate pole and occasionally the adjacent hamate is seen with what type of hamate?
Hand
27. Why is it important to diagnose a Bennett fracture early?
28. Gamekeeper's thumb is associated with what injury?
29. What is a Stener lesion?
30. What is a volar plate fracture?
31. What is a jersey finger?
32. What is a mallet finger?
33. What happens in a flexor annular pulley injury?
Bonus:
Which 1980's new wave/alternative band is most reflective of Millenials? If you can give a good reason why, I will give you extra bonus points even if you choose the wrong band.
a. Depeche Mode
b. New Order
c. The Smiths
d. The Cure
e. Echo and the Bunnymen
EVMS Unofficial Quiz based on Musculoskeletal Imaging Requisites Chapters 6, 7, and 8
Elbow
1. Line drawn through the center of the radial shaft should bisect the capitellum on any view is known as the ...
2. If the anterior humeral line passes through the anterior capitellum, you should be concerned for?
3. This is one of the more common sites of rheumatoid nodules?
4. Seeing this on a lateral radiograph is abnormal?
a. Anterior fat pad
b. Spinnaker sail sign
c. Posterior fat pad
d. All the above
e. b and c
5. The second most common pediatric elbow fracture
a. Supracondylar
b. Radial head
c. Lateral condylar
d. Medial epicondylar
6. Medial epicondyle entrapment is when the medial epicondylar fragment is between ___ and ___
7. Why is critical to diagnose a medial epicondyle entrapment?
8. Fracture of this is the most common bone fractured in the elbow of adults? What are the 2 most common types of this fracture?
9. Essex-Lopresti fracture is?
10. This epicondylitis is commonly found in baseball pitchers and tennis players? This epicondylitis is found in carpenters and golfers?
11. The distal biceps has a tendon and an aponeurosis. The biceps aponeurosis is also referred to by what other name?
12. What is Panner disease and where is it found?
13. What is Galeazzi fracture? Monteggia?
Wrist
14. Kienbock disease is associated with what type of ulnar variance?
15. Under what conditions can the extensor carpi ulnaris sheath communicate with the DRUJ?
16. What are the common wrist and distal forearm fracture patterns based on age?
17. What are the components of the TFCC?
18. There is ulnar impaction (ulnar abutment) syndrome an ulnar impingement synrome. What are they and how can treatment of one lead to the other?
19. Where does the scaphoid develop avascular necrosis? Why does this happen anatomically?
20. Stress fracture of this structure is found in carpenters and golfers:
21. What was not clearly communicated in the book is that in the setting of an arc of Gilula (pbuh) injury the fractures have Trans- as the prefix and if there is dislocation state whether it is perilunate or lunate. So if you see a scaphoid and triquetral fracture with volarly tilted lunate that maintains alignment with the distal forearm. How would you describe this injury?
22. What portion of the scapholunate ligament is most important? For the lunotriquetral?
23. Pathognomonic scapholunate dissociation can be called when you notice what on a PA radiograph?
24. End stage degenerative changes in the proximal wrist due to scapholunate dissociation is called what? Similar finding associated with scaphoid nonunion is called what?
25. What tendons are involved in de Quervain disease?
26. Symptomatic chondromalacia and subchonral edema in the proximal hamate pole and occasionally the adjacent hamate is seen with what type of hamate?
Hand
27. Why is it important to diagnose a Bennett fracture early?
28. Gamekeeper's thumb is associated with what injury?
29. What is a Stener lesion?
30. What is a volar plate fracture?
31. What is a jersey finger?
32. What is a mallet finger?
33. What happens in a flexor annular pulley injury?
Bonus:
Which 1980's new wave/alternative band is most reflective of Millenials? If you can give a good reason why, I will give you extra bonus points even if you choose the wrong band.
a. Depeche Mode
b. New Order
c. The Smiths
d. The Cure
e. Echo and the Bunnymen
October Reading
October Reading MSK Requisites Chapters 9 (Spine Trauma), 10 (Pelvis), and 11 (Hip and Femur)
Thursday, August 8, 2019
August Quiz Answers
1. This structure covers the bone surface except at joints and contributes to bone production and remodeling:
a. Apophysis
b. Trabecula
c. Periosteum (1 pt)
d. Metaphysis
2. The patient has a fracture of the base of the 5th metatarsal with a small fragment retracted from the base. This would represent what type of force of trauma?
a. Shear
b. Distraction
c. Compression
d. Tension (1 pt)
3. What is a Die-Punch fragment? Articular surface fragment that is driven into the epiphysis or metahysis. Where does it most commonly occur? Tibial plateau fx (2 pts)
4. What is an osteochondral fracture? Compression or shear fracture of subchondral bone and overlying cartilage that is confined to the peripheral portion of the epiphysis (1 pt)
5. What is an insufficiency fracture? Fracture caused by normal stresses are placed on bone that is weakened by a generalized process such as osteoporosis (1 pt)
6. What is a pathologic fracture? Fracture caused normal stresses to an abnormal bone - like a benign or malignant tumor (1 pt)
7. An intraarticular fracture that has significantly increased risk of developing post traumatic osteoarthritis? fx with step-off or diastasis of greater than 2 mm (1 Pt)
8. What are the 2 types of nonunion? Hypertrophic (sclerotic and associated with excess bone deposition) and atrophic (associated with demineralization) (2 pt)
9. What are 3 common types of causes of orthopedic hardware failure? Inadequate reduction, inadequate hardware, noncompliant patients (3 pt)
10. What is impingement? Abnormal tissue compression (1 pt)
11. What is anisotropic? Not the same in every direction (1 pt)
12. What is the magic angle? Normal ligament or tendon will have intermediate or bright signal when oriented 55 degrees relative to the bore of the magnet on short TE sequences such as GRE, T1 (1pt)
13. How to avoid magic angle? use longer TE such as T2 (1 pt)
14. What are tendons most prone to subluxation? Extensor carpi ulnaris, peroneus brevis and longus, tibialis posterior (3 pt)
15. If you think there is fatty infiltration of a muscle, which sequence will you look at?
a. T2FS
b. T1 (1 pt)
c. STIR
d. GRE
16. What are the 3 grades of muscle strain? Grade 1 - edema between muscle fibers usually along myotendinous junction; 2 - extensive edema and fluid collections; 3 - disruption of the musculotendinous junction with loss of function (3 pt)
17. What is the finding at about 4 weeks after denervation on MRI? Edema in the muscle (high signal on STIR and T2) What about after several months? muscle wasting with fatty infiltration best seen on T1 (2 pt with 1 for each answer)
18. What is an osteochonral defect? A cartilage defect that involves both cartilage and subchondral bone (1 pt)
19. What is the feared complication of physeal injury? growth arrest (1 pt)
20. What is the 1st finding in osteochondritis dissecans on MRI? Subchondral marrow edema (1 pt)
21. Anatomic neck fracture of the humerus is worrisome, why? Blood supply to head is disrupted causing poor healing, avn, and secondary osteoarthritis. (1 pt)
22. Fractures of what parts of the scapula are treated with surgical reduction and fixation? Glenoid, scapular neck, and coracoid (3 pts)
23. Other than AC separation, what are other causes of widened AC joint? Erosion of distal clavicle in RA, hyperparathyroidism, infection, traumatic osteolysis (weightlifters) (4 pt)
24. AC joint is normally how wide with what difference between sides? 5 mm (I don't call widened until 7-8 mm) with no more than 2-3 mm difference between sides (2 pt)
25. Coracoclavicular distance is usually what with what difference between sides? no wider than 11-13 mm with no more than 5 mm difference (2 pt)
26. Which rotator cuff tendon attaches to the lesser tuberosity? Subscapularis (1 pt)
27. If the biceps tendon is dislocated - you should assume there is a tear in what tendon? Subscapularis (1 pt)
28. Denervation of the posterior deltoid and teres minor is associated with fibrous bands in what space? Quadrilateral space with impingement on the axillary nerve (1 pt)
29. Acromioplasty is performed for what? Surgical decompression of the subacromial space in the setting of rotator cuff impingement (this is currently an issue of debate) (1 pt)
30. If you see fluid filled cysts within a muscle belly, you should look for what? Tendon delamination (intrasubstance tears) (1 pt)
31. Where is the critical zone in the rotator cuff and what is it? 1 cm proximal to the distal insertion of the rotator cuff. It is the watershed area between humeral head and muscular blood supply (2 pt)
32. Where does one find a Hill-Sachs lesion on the humerus? Wedge shaped defect in the lateral posterosuperior aspect of the humeral head at or above the coracoid process. (1 pt)
49 points total
a. Apophysis
b. Trabecula
c. Periosteum (1 pt)
d. Metaphysis
2. The patient has a fracture of the base of the 5th metatarsal with a small fragment retracted from the base. This would represent what type of force of trauma?
a. Shear
b. Distraction
c. Compression
d. Tension (1 pt)
3. What is a Die-Punch fragment? Articular surface fragment that is driven into the epiphysis or metahysis. Where does it most commonly occur? Tibial plateau fx (2 pts)
4. What is an osteochondral fracture? Compression or shear fracture of subchondral bone and overlying cartilage that is confined to the peripheral portion of the epiphysis (1 pt)
5. What is an insufficiency fracture? Fracture caused by normal stresses are placed on bone that is weakened by a generalized process such as osteoporosis (1 pt)
6. What is a pathologic fracture? Fracture caused normal stresses to an abnormal bone - like a benign or malignant tumor (1 pt)
7. An intraarticular fracture that has significantly increased risk of developing post traumatic osteoarthritis? fx with step-off or diastasis of greater than 2 mm (1 Pt)
8. What are the 2 types of nonunion? Hypertrophic (sclerotic and associated with excess bone deposition) and atrophic (associated with demineralization) (2 pt)
9. What are 3 common types of causes of orthopedic hardware failure? Inadequate reduction, inadequate hardware, noncompliant patients (3 pt)
10. What is impingement? Abnormal tissue compression (1 pt)
11. What is anisotropic? Not the same in every direction (1 pt)
12. What is the magic angle? Normal ligament or tendon will have intermediate or bright signal when oriented 55 degrees relative to the bore of the magnet on short TE sequences such as GRE, T1 (1pt)
13. How to avoid magic angle? use longer TE such as T2 (1 pt)
14. What are tendons most prone to subluxation? Extensor carpi ulnaris, peroneus brevis and longus, tibialis posterior (3 pt)
15. If you think there is fatty infiltration of a muscle, which sequence will you look at?
a. T2FS
b. T1 (1 pt)
c. STIR
d. GRE
16. What are the 3 grades of muscle strain? Grade 1 - edema between muscle fibers usually along myotendinous junction; 2 - extensive edema and fluid collections; 3 - disruption of the musculotendinous junction with loss of function (3 pt)
17. What is the finding at about 4 weeks after denervation on MRI? Edema in the muscle (high signal on STIR and T2) What about after several months? muscle wasting with fatty infiltration best seen on T1 (2 pt with 1 for each answer)
18. What is an osteochonral defect? A cartilage defect that involves both cartilage and subchondral bone (1 pt)
19. What is the feared complication of physeal injury? growth arrest (1 pt)
20. What is the 1st finding in osteochondritis dissecans on MRI? Subchondral marrow edema (1 pt)
21. Anatomic neck fracture of the humerus is worrisome, why? Blood supply to head is disrupted causing poor healing, avn, and secondary osteoarthritis. (1 pt)
22. Fractures of what parts of the scapula are treated with surgical reduction and fixation? Glenoid, scapular neck, and coracoid (3 pts)
23. Other than AC separation, what are other causes of widened AC joint? Erosion of distal clavicle in RA, hyperparathyroidism, infection, traumatic osteolysis (weightlifters) (4 pt)
24. AC joint is normally how wide with what difference between sides? 5 mm (I don't call widened until 7-8 mm) with no more than 2-3 mm difference between sides (2 pt)
25. Coracoclavicular distance is usually what with what difference between sides? no wider than 11-13 mm with no more than 5 mm difference (2 pt)
26. Which rotator cuff tendon attaches to the lesser tuberosity? Subscapularis (1 pt)
27. If the biceps tendon is dislocated - you should assume there is a tear in what tendon? Subscapularis (1 pt)
28. Denervation of the posterior deltoid and teres minor is associated with fibrous bands in what space? Quadrilateral space with impingement on the axillary nerve (1 pt)
29. Acromioplasty is performed for what? Surgical decompression of the subacromial space in the setting of rotator cuff impingement (this is currently an issue of debate) (1 pt)
30. If you see fluid filled cysts within a muscle belly, you should look for what? Tendon delamination (intrasubstance tears) (1 pt)
31. Where is the critical zone in the rotator cuff and what is it? 1 cm proximal to the distal insertion of the rotator cuff. It is the watershed area between humeral head and muscular blood supply (2 pt)
32. Where does one find a Hill-Sachs lesion on the humerus? Wedge shaped defect in the lateral posterosuperior aspect of the humeral head at or above the coracoid process. (1 pt)
49 points total
Sunday, August 4, 2019
September Quiz Reading
Reading for the September Quiz will be Chapters 6 through 8 of Musculoskeletal Requisites!
Elbow, wrist, and hand!
Elbow, wrist, and hand!
August Quiz
EVMS Reading Quiz for August 2019
1. This structure covers the bone surface except at joints and contributes to bone production and remodeling:
a. Apophysis
b. Trabecula
c. Periosteum
d. Metaphysis
2. The patient has a fracture of the base of the 5th metatarsal with a small fragment retracted from the base. This would represent what type of force of trauma?
a. Shear
b. Distraction
c. Compression
d. Tension
3. What is a Die-Punch fragment? Where does it most commonly occur?
4. What is an osteochondral fracture?
5. What is an insufficiency fracture?
6. What is a pathologic fracture?
7. An intraarticular fracture that has significantly increased risk of developing post traumatic osteoarthritis?
8. What are the 2 types of nonunion?
9. What are 3 common types of causes of orthopedic hardware failure?
10. What is impingement?
11. What is anisotropic?
12. What is the magic angle?
13. How to avoid magic angle?
14. What are tendons most prone to subluxation?
15. If you think there is fatty infiltration of a muscle, which sequence will you look at?
a. T2FS
b. T1
c. STIR
d. GRE
16. What are the 3 grades of muscle strain?
17. What is the finding at about 4 weeks after denervation on MRI? What about after several months?
18. What is an osteochonral defect?
19. What is the feared complication of physeal injury?
20. What is the 1st finding in osteochondritis dissecans on MRI?
21. Anatomic neck fracture of the humerus is worrisome, why?
22. Fractures of what parts of the scapula are treated with surgical reduction and fixation?
23. Other than AC separation, what are other causes of widened AC joint?
24. AC joint is normally how wide with what difference between sides?
25. Coracoclavicular distance is usually what with what difference between sides?
26. Which rotator cuff tendon attaches to the lesser tuberosity?
27. If the biceps tendon is dislocated - you should assume there is a tear in what tendon?
28. Denervation of the posterior deltoid and teres minor is associated with fibrous bands in what space?
29. Acromioplasty is performed for what?
30. If you see fluid filled cysts within a muscle belly, you should look for what?
31. Where is the critical zone in the rotator cuff and what is it?
32. Where does one find a Hill-Sachs lesion on the humerus?
1. This structure covers the bone surface except at joints and contributes to bone production and remodeling:
a. Apophysis
b. Trabecula
c. Periosteum
d. Metaphysis
2. The patient has a fracture of the base of the 5th metatarsal with a small fragment retracted from the base. This would represent what type of force of trauma?
a. Shear
b. Distraction
c. Compression
d. Tension
3. What is a Die-Punch fragment? Where does it most commonly occur?
4. What is an osteochondral fracture?
5. What is an insufficiency fracture?
6. What is a pathologic fracture?
7. An intraarticular fracture that has significantly increased risk of developing post traumatic osteoarthritis?
8. What are the 2 types of nonunion?
9. What are 3 common types of causes of orthopedic hardware failure?
10. What is impingement?
11. What is anisotropic?
12. What is the magic angle?
13. How to avoid magic angle?
14. What are tendons most prone to subluxation?
15. If you think there is fatty infiltration of a muscle, which sequence will you look at?
a. T2FS
b. T1
c. STIR
d. GRE
16. What are the 3 grades of muscle strain?
17. What is the finding at about 4 weeks after denervation on MRI? What about after several months?
18. What is an osteochonral defect?
19. What is the feared complication of physeal injury?
20. What is the 1st finding in osteochondritis dissecans on MRI?
21. Anatomic neck fracture of the humerus is worrisome, why?
22. Fractures of what parts of the scapula are treated with surgical reduction and fixation?
23. Other than AC separation, what are other causes of widened AC joint?
24. AC joint is normally how wide with what difference between sides?
25. Coracoclavicular distance is usually what with what difference between sides?
26. Which rotator cuff tendon attaches to the lesser tuberosity?
27. If the biceps tendon is dislocated - you should assume there is a tear in what tendon?
28. Denervation of the posterior deltoid and teres minor is associated with fibrous bands in what space?
29. Acromioplasty is performed for what?
30. If you see fluid filled cysts within a muscle belly, you should look for what?
31. Where is the critical zone in the rotator cuff and what is it?
32. Where does one find a Hill-Sachs lesion on the humerus?
Thursday, July 25, 2019
August Reading
EVMS 2019-2020 Reading For August Quiz
Welcome back to the EVMS Unofficial Quiz
Reading for the August Quiz - Musculoskeletal Imaging The Requisites 4th Edition - Ch. 1-5
The quiz will be up on August 4th
Answers due by midnight on August 7th.
Welcome back to the EVMS Unofficial Quiz
Reading for the August Quiz - Musculoskeletal Imaging The Requisites 4th Edition - Ch. 1-5
The quiz will be up on August 4th
Answers due by midnight on August 7th.
Monday, April 15, 2019
April Quiz Answers
Hey the answers are Here - It has been a fun year! Hope everyone enjoyed it.
Dr. Dey is the grand winner with Dr. Bonney as the runner up and Dr. Trace coming in 3rd. For everyone who participated - thanks and here is to a hopefully successful one next year!
1. C
2. Associated with ureteroilial stricture
3. Through natural urethra or through straight cath of a stoma or urethra
4. Reabsorption of ammonium and chloride may lead to worsening hepatic impairment
5. Renal artery PSV > 200 cm/s; Renal artery PSV to abominal aorta PSV ratio of > 3.5:1; lack of Doppler US in cases of occlusion; Aliasing
6. Every 1-2 years; >1.5 cm
7. Crossing renal vessel
8. Nutcracker phenomenon - left renal vein compressed between aorta and SMA; Syndrome - clinical signs and symptoms from phenomenon - hematuria, left flank pain; pelvic congestion syndrome, lower limb varices and varicoceles
9. T1
10. at least T3a
11. When mass is suspected of being hematologic, metastatic, infectious or inflammatory
12. cT1a lesions; anatomic or functionally 1 kidney; bilateral tumors; multiple masses; familial syndromes; preexisting CKD, proteinuria; young, multiple masses, comorbidities
Bonus - D
Dr. Dey is the grand winner with Dr. Bonney as the runner up and Dr. Trace coming in 3rd. For everyone who participated - thanks and here is to a hopefully successful one next year!
1. C
2. Associated with ureteroilial stricture
3. Through natural urethra or through straight cath of a stoma or urethra
4. Reabsorption of ammonium and chloride may lead to worsening hepatic impairment
5. Renal artery PSV > 200 cm/s; Renal artery PSV to abominal aorta PSV ratio of > 3.5:1; lack of Doppler US in cases of occlusion; Aliasing
6. Every 1-2 years; >1.5 cm
7. Crossing renal vessel
8. Nutcracker phenomenon - left renal vein compressed between aorta and SMA; Syndrome - clinical signs and symptoms from phenomenon - hematuria, left flank pain; pelvic congestion syndrome, lower limb varices and varicoceles
9. T1
10. at least T3a
11. When mass is suspected of being hematologic, metastatic, infectious or inflammatory
12. cT1a lesions; anatomic or functionally 1 kidney; bilateral tumors; multiple masses; familial syndromes; preexisting CKD, proteinuria; young, multiple masses, comorbidities
Bonus - D
Sunday, April 7, 2019
April Quiz
April 2019 EVMS Unofficial Radiology Quiz
The Last for the 2018-2019 season!
The Final Countdown!
Man I wish I could still grow my hair that long
1. The typical diversion usually has the ostomy?
a. Just below the umbilicus so they can use the urachal remnant
b. In the left lower quadrant as it is easier for right handed people to handle the bag
c. In the right lower quadrant similar to an ileostomy.
2. In incontinent diversions, why do they usually not implement antireflux anastomosis?
3. Continent diversion - How does one void?
4. Why does one need to have adequate liver function for a continent diversion?
5. What are the direct signs of renal artery stenosis
6. Patient has a 1.2 cm renal artery aneurysm. How often should she be reevaluated? When should she have definitive intervention?
7. UPJ obstruction is caused in 29-46% of the time by what?
8. What is nutcracker phenomenon and what is the distinction between this an nutcracker syndrome?
9. Renal mass that is 3 cm in longest dimension with intact capsule and no involvement of the renal sinus fat would be considered what T stage?
10. Same mass but invades the renal pelvis would be at least what T stage?
11. When should renal mass biopsy be considered?
12. Who should get partial nephrectomy?
Bonus:
Controversial, but what band may or may not have been partially responsible for the invention of CT?
a. The Who
c. New Order
d. The Beatles
Sunday, March 31, 2019
ANswers Shmanshers for March Quiz!- So the winners for this round are Dr. Dey, Bonney and Trace! It was a three way Tie!
1. Periapical granuloma, periapical cyst, periapical abscess (3 points)
2. Cemento-osseous dysplasia (1 point)
No one was able to answer this correctly so it will not be counted for score.
3. Lucency near crown of unerupted tooth (1 point)
4. Septic thrombosis of venous sinus, brain abscess, epidural abscess, subdural empyema, meningitis (5 points)
5. Whether the lesion is related to a tooth? (1 point)
6. Cemento-osseous dysplasia (1 point)
7. 1st question - simple odontoma; 2nd question - complex odontoma (2 points)
8. torus palatinus (1 point)
9. Beam hardening artifact (1 point)
10. c (1 point)
11. b (1 point)
12. d (1 point)
Bonus
d (1 point)
1. Periapical granuloma, periapical cyst, periapical abscess (3 points)
2. Cemento-osseous dysplasia (1 point)
3. Lucency near crown of unerupted tooth (1 point)
4. Septic thrombosis of venous sinus, brain abscess, epidural abscess, subdural empyema, meningitis (5 points)
5. Whether the lesion is related to a tooth? (1 point)
6. Cemento-osseous dysplasia (1 point)
7. 1st question - simple odontoma; 2nd question - complex odontoma (2 points)
8. torus palatinus (1 point)
9. Beam hardening artifact (1 point)
10. c (1 point)
11. b (1 point)
12. d (1 point)
Bonus
d (1 point)
Sunday, March 3, 2019
April Articles!
It's time for your April Articles! This month we are going to focus on GU - Kidneys and ureters!
Follow the Stream - Imaging of Urinary Diversions
Multimodality Review of Native Renal Vasculature
2017 Renal Mass and Localized Renal Cancer Guidelines
Follow the Stream - Imaging of Urinary Diversions
Multimodality Review of Native Renal Vasculature
2017 Renal Mass and Localized Renal Cancer Guidelines
Unofficial EVMS Journal Club March Quiz!
It is the 1st Sunday of March - that means it is time for another quiz! Hope you are ready for some questions about TEETH!
1. If you see some form of tooth disease and a periapical lucency - what are 3 things you should consider?
2. If the tooth is unrestored and without evidence of disease but has a periapical lucency, what should you consider?
3. How do dentigerous cysts appear?
4. What are 5 possible intracranial complications of apical periodontitis?
5. When evaluating teeth lesions, what is the third question you need to ask?
6. Sally McSallyface, an African American woman in her 50's, presents with a vital nonrestored tooth that has a periapical lucency not fused with the tooth. What do you think she has?
7. Job McJobface, a 9 yo boy, presents with a supernumary tooth. This could be a presentation of what? What type of lesion if the lesion is an amorphous hyperattenuating conglomerate mass adjacent an unerupted tooth?
8. Peter McPeterface has a CT of the maxillofacial sinuses and has an osseous protruberance from the hard palate. What does this represent?
9. Yoni McYoniface has a CT of the neck. The radiologist Courtney McCourtneyface is concerned there is a recurrent carious lesion. However, she notices that it is due to metallic fillings causing low attenuation at the junction between the filling and the tooth. This is because of what artifact?
10. Martin McMartinface passes out while watching "Without a Trace?" and injures his face. He gets a CT and there is a fracture of the alveolar socket on the outer side. This is a fracture of what surface?
a. The lingual surface
b. The tongue surface
c. The buccal surface
d. The hyoid surface
11. Jimbob has mucosal thickening of the right maxillary sinus with dehiscence adjacent a carious tooth. This is concerning for?
a. Obstructive maxillary sinusitis
b. Odontogenic sinusitis
c. Mucociliary dysplasia
d. Adenocarcinoma
12. Tony McTonyface has a tooth extracted. At the follow up examination, the dentist notices bubbles at the extraction site in the maxilla. The dentist reviews the incidentally obtained recent sinus CT, she likely notices at the extraction site?
a. Odontoma
b. Myxoma
c. Plasmacytoma
d. Oroantral fistula
Bonus:
This artist was an original member of Depeche Mode who went on to form another famous electronic band - who and which band
a. Andy McCluskey and OMD
b. Bernard Sumner and New Order
c. Chris Lowe and Pet Shop Boys
d. Vince Clarke and Erasure
1. If you see some form of tooth disease and a periapical lucency - what are 3 things you should consider?
2. If the tooth is unrestored and without evidence of disease but has a periapical lucency, what should you consider?
3. How do dentigerous cysts appear?
4. What are 5 possible intracranial complications of apical periodontitis?
5. When evaluating teeth lesions, what is the third question you need to ask?
6. Sally McSallyface, an African American woman in her 50's, presents with a vital nonrestored tooth that has a periapical lucency not fused with the tooth. What do you think she has?
7. Job McJobface, a 9 yo boy, presents with a supernumary tooth. This could be a presentation of what? What type of lesion if the lesion is an amorphous hyperattenuating conglomerate mass adjacent an unerupted tooth?
8. Peter McPeterface has a CT of the maxillofacial sinuses and has an osseous protruberance from the hard palate. What does this represent?
9. Yoni McYoniface has a CT of the neck. The radiologist Courtney McCourtneyface is concerned there is a recurrent carious lesion. However, she notices that it is due to metallic fillings causing low attenuation at the junction between the filling and the tooth. This is because of what artifact?
10. Martin McMartinface passes out while watching "Without a Trace?" and injures his face. He gets a CT and there is a fracture of the alveolar socket on the outer side. This is a fracture of what surface?
a. The lingual surface
b. The tongue surface
c. The buccal surface
d. The hyoid surface
11. Jimbob has mucosal thickening of the right maxillary sinus with dehiscence adjacent a carious tooth. This is concerning for?
a. Obstructive maxillary sinusitis
b. Odontogenic sinusitis
c. Mucociliary dysplasia
d. Adenocarcinoma
12. Tony McTonyface has a tooth extracted. At the follow up examination, the dentist notices bubbles at the extraction site in the maxilla. The dentist reviews the incidentally obtained recent sinus CT, she likely notices at the extraction site?
a. Odontoma
b. Myxoma
c. Plasmacytoma
d. Oroantral fistula
Bonus:
This artist was an original member of Depeche Mode who went on to form another famous electronic band - who and which band
a. Andy McCluskey and OMD
b. Bernard Sumner and New Order
c. Chris Lowe and Pet Shop Boys
d. Vince Clarke and Erasure
Wednesday, February 27, 2019
February 2019 Quiz Answers
Great Job Dr.s Dey, Trace and Bonney!
1. LCL, popliteus tendon, and PFL
2. High PPV of arthroscopically confirmed posterior horn tears of the lateral meniscus
3. Posterior Cruciate Ligament; Anterior Cruciate Ligament
4. LCL or Biceps femoris
5. Osteonecrosis of the femoral head
6. Above or below the fovea capitis
7. Fracture of the femoral neck
8. Evaluate joint congruence, evaluate for intra-articular fragments, search for associated bone and soft tissue injuries
9. Biceps femoris, rectus femoris, gastrocnemius muscles.
10. Stretching injury with unaccustomed prolonged or overly vigorous eccentric exercise; Muscle enlargement and fluid signal with preserved architecture
11. More sensitive - allows dynamic viewing and hernia has anisotropy to origin muscle, may see the fascial defect
12. Zonal
Bonus:
Stan Kroenke who owns the LA Rams and Arsenal of London, England; Shahid Khan who owns the Jacksonville Jaguars and Fulham
1. LCL, popliteus tendon, and PFL
2. High PPV of arthroscopically confirmed posterior horn tears of the lateral meniscus
3. Posterior Cruciate Ligament; Anterior Cruciate Ligament
4. LCL or Biceps femoris
5. Osteonecrosis of the femoral head
6. Above or below the fovea capitis
7. Fracture of the femoral neck
8. Evaluate joint congruence, evaluate for intra-articular fragments, search for associated bone and soft tissue injuries
9. Biceps femoris, rectus femoris, gastrocnemius muscles.
10. Stretching injury with unaccustomed prolonged or overly vigorous eccentric exercise; Muscle enlargement and fluid signal with preserved architecture
11. More sensitive - allows dynamic viewing and hernia has anisotropy to origin muscle, may see the fascial defect
12. Zonal
Bonus:
Stan Kroenke who owns the LA Rams and Arsenal of London, England; Shahid Khan who owns the Jacksonville Jaguars and Fulham
Saturday, February 2, 2019
February Quiz
Hey We are Back and it's 2019. May it be better for you than last year.
1. What are the 3 main stabilizers of the posterolateral corner?
2. Disruption of the popliteomeniscal fascicle is associated with what?
3. Posterolateral corner injuries are most commonly associated with tears of what cruciate ligament? Grade III injuries are associated with failed reconstruction of what cruciate ligament?
4. You see a larger lateral margin avulsion from the fibular styloid, you are likely to have avulsion fractures of what?
5. In the setting of hip dislocation, providers want to reduce quickly to reduce the risk of what?
6. In the setting of dislocation and a fracture of the femoral head, it should be described as above or below what?
7. What contraindicates closed reduction in the setting of hip dislocation?
8. What is the purpose of CT in the setting of post reduction hip?
9. The 3 most commonly strained muscles?
10. DOMS - what setting does it typically occur? What is the typical T2 finding?
1. What are the 3 main stabilizers of the posterolateral corner?
2. Disruption of the popliteomeniscal fascicle is associated with what?
3. Posterolateral corner injuries are most commonly associated with tears of what cruciate ligament? Grade III injuries are associated with failed reconstruction of what cruciate ligament?
4. You see a larger lateral margin avulsion from the fibular styloid, you are likely to have avulsion fractures of what?
5. In the setting of hip dislocation, providers want to reduce quickly to reduce the risk of what?
6. In the setting of dislocation and a fracture of the femoral head, it should be described as above or below what?
7. What contraindicates closed reduction in the setting of hip dislocation?
8. What is the purpose of CT in the setting of post reduction hip?
9. The 3 most commonly strained muscles?
10. DOMS - what setting does it typically occur? What is the typical T2 finding?
11. What advantage(s) does ultrasound have in the setting of muscle hernia?
12. Myositis Ossificans has a what type of organization as it matures?
Bonus:
The article on muscle injury briefly mentions a football team. Who currently owns two different types of football teams in 2 different countries that speak the same language and what teams are they?
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