Friday, February 7, 2025

February 2025 Quiz

 February 20, 2025 Quiz

TMJ

1. If the disc is dislocated; on which view do you look to see if it reduces:

A. Coronal Closed view

B. Coronal Open view

C. Sagittal Open view

D. Sagittal Closed view


2. Regardless of Open or Closed mouth view, the intermediate zone should be between the mandibular condyle and the 

A. Temporal bone

B. Nasal bone

C. Medial Pterygoid Plate

D. Mandibular Ramus


3. What is True of TMJ Disease

A. Degenerative disc disease occurs with most advanced stage of internal derangement

B. Limited motion occurs when the disc does not reduce

C. The disc is less likely to reduce when the bilaminar zone is stretched and dysfunctional

D. All the above. 


4. Which of the following is true:

A. Avascular necrosis never occurs in the TMJ

B. It is better for the disc to not reduce than to reduce with open mouth views. 

C. An erosion of the condyle may be the earliest osseous manifestation of degenerative TMJ disease

D. All of the above.

UIP


5. Which of the following is not in the Criteria for acute exacerbation of IPF

A. Previous or concurrent diagnosis of IPF

B. Acute worsening or development of dyspnea typically of more than 1 month in duration. 

C. CT findings of bilateral ground-glass opacities and/or consolidation superimposed on a background pattern of usual IPF.

D. Deterioration not fully explained by cardiac failure or fluid overload. 


6. What is true

A. Asymmetric basal, small to medium sized irregular linear opacities in a reticular pattern

B. Peripheral and basal predominance. 

C. Acute disease is characterized by honeycomb cysts

D. Pleural effusions are common


7. What is false

A. Predominately subpleural distribution

B. Ground glass opacities may reflect passive inflammation or microscopic fibrosis

C. Mediastinal lymph node enlargement is evident in 70% of patients

D. Patients with IPF have increased risk of lung cancer. 


8. Name 3 processes with similar parenchymal abnormalities?


9. How to differentiate Asbestosis from IPF?


10. What is best way to differentiate NSIP from UIP?


Thursday, January 27, 2022

December Quiz

December Quiz for Unofficial Journal Club

Answers are due on 2/5/2022 at midnight


1. Which acute aortic syndrome (AAS) is the most common? 

a. Acute aortic dissection (AAD). 

b. Intramural hematoma (IMH). 

c. Limited intimal tear (LIT). 

d. Penetrating atherosclerotic ulcer (PAU). 


2. Why are acute type A lesions more dangerous than type B lesions? 

a. They are about twice as common as type B lesions. 

b. They require surgery to meaningfully help the patient. 

c. They have an accelerated rate and number of potentially fatal complications. 

d. They are clinically more sudden in onset. 


3. What is the most important finding in Figure 3a? 

a. A mobile intimal flap, consistent with acute dissection. 

b. Dissection involvement of the ascending aorta. 

c. Adventitial hematoma compressing the pulmonary arteries. 

d. Aneurysmal caliber of the ascending aorta. 


4. Which AAS represents an imaging finding rather than a distinct pathologic condition? 

a. IMH. 

b. LIT. 

c. PAU. 

d. Leaking or ruptured aortic aneurysm. 


5. Why are noncontrast CT images particularly helpful in evaluating AASs? 

a. They help meet the requirement in CT before contrast-enhanced imaging can be performed. 

b. They allow the patient to practice the breath hold needed for contrast-enhanced imaging. 

c. They allow differentiation of calcified plaque from surgical material. 

d. They allow evaluation for acute hemorrhage.


6. What is the most common cause of blunt traumatic aortic injury (BTAI)? 

a. Fall from a significant height. 

b. High-velocity motor vehicle collision. 

c. Pedestrian struck by a motor vehicle. 

d. Nonaccidental trauma. 


7. What is cited as the most commonly involved site of minimal aortic injury (MAI)? 

a. Ascending aorta. 

b. Origin of the right brachiocephalic artery. 

c. Aortic isthmus. 

d. Diaphragmatic crus. 


8. What imaging modality is standard to help diagnose MAI? 

a. Chest radiography. 

b. Multidetector CT angiography. 

c. MRI. 

d. Catheter-based angiography. 


9. In figure 4d, what direct sign of MAI is present? 

a. Intimal flap. 

b. Psuedoaneurysm. 

c. Small periaortic hemorrhage. 

d. Coarctation. 


10. What type of management is currently recommended for the treatment of MAI? 

a. Minimally invasive surgical repair. 

b. Open surgical repair. 

c. Transcatheter endovascular repair (TEVAR). 

d. Nonoperative medical management.


11. What parenchymal injury with its characteristic appearance is depicted on the accompanying axial CT image? 

a. Contusion, with well-defined regions of solid pulmonary consolidation. 

b. Hematoma, with solid pulmonary consolidation that usually extends to pleural margins. 

c. Contusion, with ground-glass parenchymal attenuation with 1–3 mm of subpleural sparing. 

d. Laceration, with linear and branching parenchymal attenuation confined to individual anatomical segments. 


12. On CT images, why might pulmonary hematomas pose a diagnostic dilemma for radiologists? 

a. Chronic hematomas can be mistaken for lung malignancy. 

b. They enhance heterogeneously at arterial phase imaging. 

c. They are difficult to distinguish from pulmonary contusions. 

d. When they occur near the pulmonary hila, they are suggestive of possible pulmonary arterial injury. 


13. Why are extrapleural hematomas important for radiologists to identify correctly? 

a. They can cause local mass effect, which may result in tension physiology. 

b. They do not typically respond to chest tube placement and may require surgical evacuation. 

c. They have a high association with sternal fractures. 

d. They predispose to local pleural scar formation, which may cause breathing difficulties. 


14. Which of the following has been proposed as an explanation for the frequency of right versus left main bronchus injury? 

a. The left main bronchus is more frequently injured because it is longer than the right. 

b. The left main bronchus is more frequently injured because it is shorter than the right. 

c. The right main bronchus is more frequently injured because it is longer than the left. 

d. The right main bronchus is more frequently injured because it is shorter than the left. 


15. What percentage of cases of tracheal injury are occult at CT? 

a. 5%. 

b. 29% 

c. 54%. 

d. 92%.


16. The ____ slip extends over the dorsal aspect of the proximal phalanx to insert at the dorsal aspect of the PIP Joint


17. Mallet finger

a. results from disruption of the tendon at its insertion on the volar aspect of the distal phalanx

b. Typically treated with pinning

c. most manifest with radiographic depicted fractures

d. isolated tendon injuries are best depicted on sagittal MR images


18. Tendon lacerations

a. lacerations of the extensor mechanism often result in proximal tendon retraction

b. lacerations of the flexor tendons often result in proximal tendon retraction.

c. central slip lacerations of the extensor tendon are often diagnosed radiographically

d. the course of the flexor tendon can be divided into five anatomic zone with zone I being A1 annular pulley to flexor retinaculum


19. Pulley injuries

a. A3 is the most commonly injured pulley

b. surgical correction is recommended for A2 injuries when bowstringing extends proximal to base of the proximal phalanx

c. MR imaging in the coronal plane are best for making diagnosis

d. climber's finger occurs during powerful extension


20. What is true regarding Gamekeeper's thumb

a. Stener lesion develops in cases of UCL tear and retraction with interposition of abductor aponeurosis between the insertion and torn UCL

b. Gamekeeper thumb is an injury of the UCL usually in the proximal portion

c. Stener is commonly seen as a "yo-yo on a beach" sign

d. the absence of UCL fibers spanning the MCP joint with masslike abnormality proximal to joint requires surgery. 


Additional Question: The rules - +2 points for correct answer; -5 for wrong answer; -2 for no answer

Who was the greatest president of Robert Post's lifetime?

a. Theodore Roosevelt

b. Abraham Lincoln

c. Ronald Reagan

d. JFK

e. FDR

Monday, October 25, 2021

November 2021-2022 Unofficial Journal Quiz



Welcome Back to the EVMS Unofficial Journal Club Quiz!

2021-2022

Quiz Results will be Due 11/3/2021 by midnight in my email.

1. The standard CT protocol for evaluation of a patient with hemoptysis should extend from the lower neck through what anatomic landmark? 

a. Aortic bifurcation. 

b. Diaphragm. 

c. Renal arteries. 

d. Celiac axis. 


2. What is the normal diameter of bronchial arteries? 

a. <0.5 mm. 

b. 0.5–2 mm. 

c. 2–3.5 mm. 

d. 3.5–5.0 mm. 


3. From what vascular supply do pseudoaneurysms causing hemoptysis most commonly arise? 

a. Nonbronchial systemic veins. 

b. Pulmonary veins. 

c. Pulmonary arterial tree. 

d. Bronchial arteries. 


4. What is the most common cause of a pseudoaneurysm? 

a. Direct invasion from tumors. 

b. Infection. 

c. Iatrogenic injury. 

d. Inflammation from vasculitis, radiation therapy, or blunt or penetrating trauma. 


5. What is the most common cause of parenchymal destruction that results in hemoptysis? 

a. Interstitial lung disease. 

b. Infarction. 

c. Tumor necrosis. 

d. Acute infectious pneumonia.

6. When using 100 kVp rather than 120 kVp at CT angiography (CTA) with iodinated intravenous contrast material, which of the following best describes attenuation? 

a. Attenuation at 100 kVp is lower than at 120 kVp. 

b. Attenuation at 100 kVp is higher than at 120 kVp. 

c. The attenuation is the same, regardless of the kilovolt peak setting used. 

d. The contrast attenuation is not depicted. 


7. Which of the following is the most common cause of acute aortic syndrome? 

a. Classic aortic dissection. 

b. Penetrating atherosclerotic ulcer (PAU). 

c. Acute intramural hematoma (IMH). 

d. Mycotic aneurysm. 


8. Which of the following entities could cause a PAU? 

a. Trauma. 

b. Infection. 

c. Ulcerated atheromatous plaque. 

d. Classic dissection. 


9. What type of dissection is depicted in Figure 26f, according to the classification by Svensson et al? 

a. Not in classification. 

b. Type 1. 

c. Type 2. 

d. Type 3. 


10. Stage 1 of the elephant trunk procedure entails performing which of the following maneuvers? 

a. Arch grafting and aortic debranching. 

b. Aortic valve replacement. 

c. Cabol procedure. 

d. Endovascular repair of descending aorta.


11. What is cited as the most common site of iatrogenic tracheobronchial injuries such as those caused by bronchoscopic procedures? 

a. Cartilaginous portion of the distal thoracic trachea. 

b. Membranous portion of the proximal thoracic trachea. 

c. Origin of the right main bronchus. 

d. Anterior cervical trachea. 


12. In Figures 8a and 8b, what imaging finding is seen after tracheostomy? 

a. Normal tracheostomy tube cuff. 

b. Normal cricothyroid membrane anatomy. 

c. Herniation of the tracheostomy cuff because of a posterior membrane stylet injury. 

d. Expected anterior cartilaginous tracheostomy defect. 


13. What are the most common sites of blunt force tracheobronchial injury? 

a. Cervical trachea and laryngotrachea. 

b. Proximal intrathoracic trachea and left bronchus. 

c. Intrathoracic mid trachea and right bronchus. 

d. Distal trachea, proximal main bronchi, and carina. 


14. What is cited as an increasingly supported type of management for a 1.5-cm laceration of the posterior membrane without esophageal herniation? 

a. Nonsurgical treatment. 

b. Surgical treatment. 

c. Physical therapy. 

d. Antibiotic regimen. 


15. What is the correct placement of an endotracheal tube cuff in patients with a tracheobronchial injury? 

a. It should never be advanced beyond the injury. 

b. Inflation of the cuff distal to the injury is usually preferable. 

c. Inflation of the cuff proximal to the injury is usually preferable. 

d. A chest drain should be inserted, but no tube should be placed.


16. The ankle fracture seen in Figure 7 involves what mechanism of injury defined in the Dias-Tachdjian classification system? 

a. Supination-inversion. 

b. Supination–external rotation. 

c. Pronation–external rotation. 

d. Supination–plantar flexion. 


17. What fracture type is classified as a transitional ankle fracture? 

a. Salter-Harris type I fracture of the distal fibula. 

b. Salter-Harris type III fracture of the medial malleolus. 

c. Juvenile Tillaux fracture. 

d. Avulsion fracture of the lateral malleolus. 


18. What lower extremity bone fracture is most commonly associated with tibiotalar dislocation in children? 

a. Calcaneal fracture. 

b. Tibial fracture. 

c. Fibular fracture. 

d. Talar fracture. 


19. Avascular necrosis, when associated with displacement or a high-energy injury mechanism, is a common complication of what fracture type? 

a. Tibial plafond fracture. 

b. Talar fracture. 

c. Calcaneal fracture. 

d. Distal phalangeal fracture. 


20. Which of the following CT findings indicates the need for a surgical treatment approach to injury of the foot and ankle? 

a. Isolated fibular fracture. 

b. Minimally (<2 mm) displaced Lisfranc injury. 

c. Extra-articular calcaneal fracture. 

d. Physeal widening of greater than 3 mm.

Sunday, March 14, 2021

Answers to January Quiz

Answers to the January Quiz

Congrats to Dr. Bonney, Winz, and Klause

In the current standings - there is a 3 way tie!

1. D

2. B

3. C

4. B

5. Beveled Edge on edge and concentric lytic rings en face; Severely compressed vertebral body with intact posterior elements

6. 50% decrease in the product of the 2 largest diameters is considered a good response

7.  X-ray - initial diagnostic tool. Indicates aggressiveness and at least hints to type of tumor. Nuclear Medicine - helps determine if monostotic, polyostotic, metasatatic. Chest CT - useful for lung metastases. MRI - helps define extent of lesion within the bone and soft tissues and whether there are synchronous lesions in the bone. Biopsy - Pathology of aggressive lesions. 

8. 80% of sarcomas recur within 2 years of primary tx

9. Female

10. Less than 55. 

11. Ossification

12. Rigid flatfoot and associated with myelomeningocele

13. Hindfoot equinuus, hindfoot varus, forefoot varus

14. Calcaneonavicular and talocalcaneal

15. Multiple coalitions in one hindfoot. 

Bonus - Cheap Trick - from Rockford, IL. The Rockford Peaches were the team in League of Their Own. 

Monday, January 4, 2021

January Quiz

 


January 2021 EVM Unofficial Reading Quiz

Answers due 1/20/2021 at Midnight


1. I see a lytic lesion with a linear ossific fragment in the dependent portion of the lesion.

a. This is pathognomonic for an ABC

b. The finding is due to malignant transformation. 

c. This is pathognomonic for a GCT

d. This finding could lead to spontaneous healing


2. Eccentric lytic tibial lesion with 1B margin in the metaphysis which abuts the articular surface in a 30 yo patient. 

a. Slight male predominance.

b. If found in the sacrum can cross the SI joint. 

c. Low on T1 and Bright T2 with solid enhancement

d. No recurrence or metastatic potential.


3. Eccentric lesion with fluid-fluid levels that is expansile. Surgery revealed blood filled cystic cavities with connective tissue and septa.

a. If found in the spine - it is always in the vertebral body

b. Never a primary lesion

c. Common diseases associated with this process is GCT, chondroblastoma, and fibrous dysplasia

d. Most commonly found in the metacarpals


4. Patient presents with rectal bleeding. On CT, there is a lesion in the sacrum with calcifications. 

a. Nuclear Medicine bone scan is great at showing extent of disease. 

b. Can cross the SI joint. 

c. Women more common than men

d. wicked fast at growing. 


5. What is the historical description of LCH's involvement with the skull on edge? What is a vertebra plana?

6. What decrease in tumor size is associated with a good response?

7. What is the role of the following in bone tumors - 

X-ray?

NM?

Chest CT?

MRI?

Biopsy?

8. When do most bone tumors recur?

9. What gender typically gets DDH?

10. What is the alpha angle on ultrasound that is associated with DDH?

11. What limits ultrasound's use beyond 3 months?

12. How does congenital vertical talus present and what developmental anomaly is it associated?

13. What are the 3 radiographic findings to clubfoot?

14. What are the 2 most common tarsal coalitions?

15. What is the significance of a "ball and socket ankle"?

Bonus: If you were on the team from "A League of Their Own" and you never moved and lived to see the 1980s - what band would you be obligated to support as they were the hometown heroes?

Friday, December 25, 2020

Answers to December Quiz

Merry Christmas!

Congrats to Dr. Winz, Bonney, and Klause!

All questions and bonus worth 1 point (20 points plus 1 bonus point for total of 21 possible points)

1. C 

2. E

3. E

4. C

5. A

6. D, E, F

7. B

8. C

9. B, D, E

10. Gorham Disease - multicentric angiomatosis with regional dissolution of bone, which is rapid and severely destructive, spreading contiguously across joints

11. B

12. B, C, D, E

13. B

14. C

15. D

16. A, B, C, D

17. B

18. Fascicular sign - enlarged nerve fibers are seen in cross section as multiple small ringlike structures

19. Schwannoma - they can peel the lesion from the nerve

20. False

Bonus: Will Durant - It is commonly misquoted as Aristotle but it was actually a paraphrase of something Aristotle wrote about. 

Wednesday, December 9, 2020

Reading for January 2021



Final Readings for MSK Requisites EVER with the January Quiz ✌💪😁- Will Return to Journal Articles for February 2021! I know you are stoked!

Chapters 37, 38, 44, 45, and 47

Saturday, November 28, 2020

December Quiz

 

Saint Nicholas Not Just a Fat Guy in a Red Suit

Let's see what you got for December 2020 - Answers are due Dec 10 at Midnight

1. Fibrous Dysplasia

A. Osseous neoplasia
B. Cantankerous sailor of the 1800's
C. Hamartomatous metaplasia or dysplasia with fibrous stroma, osteoid, woven bone
D. Neoplasia with fibrous stroma, osteoid, woven bone
E. Hamartomatous metaplasia or dysplasia with cortical fibroma, osteoid, woven bone

2. Fibrous Dysplasia

A. Common in the spine
B. Polyostotic FD is usually not part of a syndrome
C. Myxomas in Mazabraud Syndrome usually found near the osseous lesion in the extremity and have low T2
D. Malignant transformation to fibrosarcoma or osteosarcoma and not rare
E. Shepherd's crook deformity is a severe varus deformity of the femoral neck due to soft bone

3. NOF

A. Very common around the knee
B. Bubbly lytic lesion with sclerotic margin in the cortical metaphyseal region
C. Occurs in 30-40% of children older than 2
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

4. Superficial Fibromatoses

A. Easy to treat with local invasion and low recurrence
B. Palmar and Plantar Fibromatosis are rare in the same patient
C. Low T1 signal and low or variable T2
D. Ultrasound has little value in evaluating these lesions
E. Palmar Fibromatosis is a fibrotic band tethering tendons causing extension contractures

5. Desmoid tumor (Aggressive Fibromatosis)

A. Found in the mesentery within the abdomen and commonly found in abdominal wall an muscles of young women
B. Locally infiltrative but does not cross compartment barriers
C. In extremities, majority are in the superficial fascia
D. Commonly metastasizes.
E. Rare malignant neoplasm of infancy

6. Undifferentiated Pleomorphic Sarcoma (which of the following are true - may be 1 or more than 1)

A. Narrow range of age
B. Specific MRI appearance
C. 5 year survival is 50-60%
D. Formerly known as malignant fibrous histiocytoma
E. Lower extremity is most common 
F. Dystrophic calcifications in 15% and hemorrhage is common

7. Intraosseous Lipoma

A. Most frequent bone is the calcaneus
B. Sclerotic margin is common and may have central fat necrosis
C. Cockade sign is not commonly seen in these lesions
D. Majority are found in the spine
E. Commonly breaks through the cortex

8. Soft tissue Lipoma (which are true - could be 1 or more than 1)

A. Irregular enhancing septations >2 mm in thickness
B. Soft tissue nodules
C. No enhancement
D. If lipoma entraps muscle fibers, the entrapped muscle fibers enhance
E. Lipoblastomas are typically 50 or older

9. Hemangioma (which are false - could be 1 or more than 1)

A. Osseous cavernous hemangiomas are found in vertebral bodies, skull, and facial bones
B. In the spine, there can be mild expansion and even a soft tissue mass which can cause neurologic symptoms by invasion
C. Skull lesions when have radiating sunburst pattern is considered pathognomonic
D. Atypical hemangiomas have bright T1 and T2 
E. Soft tissue lesions usually have no fat or phleboliths

10. What is Gorham Disease?

11. Bobby has a painful lesion of his middle finger with temperature sensitivity. On imaging, there is a well marginated scalloped defect on the dorsal aspect of the terminal phalanx in the subungual region. What lesion, should we consider?

A. Fibrous dysplasia
B. Glomus Tumor
C. Hemangiopericytoma
D. Hemangioma
E. Intraosseous lipoma

12. Metastatic Disease (which are true, could be 1 or more)

A. Lesser trochanter avulsion fracture in a child should be considered pathologic until proved otherwise
B. Solitary sternal lesion in a patient with breast cancer has 80% probability of being a metastatic focus
C. Cortically based metastatic lesions are most commonly caused by lung or breast (My mentor Dr. El-Khoury would say your 1st three differentials for cortically based metastatic lesions should be lung, lung, and lung; there are others n the differential though)
D. Expansile bubbly geographic solitary metastases are often caused by renal cell or thyroid
E. Most metastases have moth eaten or geographic pattern with wide zone of transition

13. Multiple Myeloma

A. Most commonly found in fatty marrow areas of the skeleton
B. Majority of cases are numerous focal, punched out lytic lesions with narrow zone of transition
C. Often greater than 5 cm in size
D. Never presents as generalized osteopenia
E. Whole Body MRI will often downgrade patients

14. Ewing Sarcoma (Which is false)

A. Small round cell tumor with chromosome 11;22 translocation
B. Most occur between 5-14 years
C. Classically - permeative lesion with soft tissue mass and often calcified matrix
D. Tubular bones in younger patients and flat bones and axial skeleton in adolescents and young adults
E. Ewing can be differentiated from LCH and Osteomyelitis as Ewing has slower destructive course (6-12 weeks for Ewing versus 1-2 and 2-4 for LCH and OM respectively)

15. MRI of the wrist demonstrates an enlarged median nerve with interposed fatty tissue between nerve bundles.

A. PNST
B. Morton Neuroma
C. PVNS
D. Fibrolipomatous Hamartoma
E. Giant Cell Tumor of the Tendon Sheath

16. PVNS (which are true; could be 1 or more)

A. 80% are in the knee, followed by hip and elbow
B. Should be considered when see large subchondral cysts in a hip
C. Monarticular tumorlike proliferation of synovium in joints, bursae, tendon sheaths
D. Blooming on gradient echo imaging
E. Show little enhancement

17. Synovial Cell Sarcoma

A. 90% originate from a joint
B. Most occur in the lower extremities at or distal to knee
C. Dystrophic calcification is seen in greater than 50% of cases
D. Calcified tumors have bad prognosis
E. Old patient with juxtarticular lower extremity lesion and calcification - should suggest this diagnosis

18. What is the fascicular sign in Peripheral nerve sheath tumors?

19. If you need to have a peripheral nerve sheath tumor removed, which would you prefer to have and why - Neurofibroma, Schwannoma, Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor

20. Giant Cell Tumor of the Tendon Sheath is often hemorrhagic and does not enhance - True or False

Bonus: Who said: "We are what we repeatedly do. Excellence, then, is not an act, but a habit."

Sunday, November 8, 2020

Read Em and Weep - The Answers to the November Quiz!

 


Great Job Dr.s Winz, Klause, and Bonney!

20 points with 1 possible extra credit point.


1. E

2. A.

3. C

4. B

5. C

6. B

7. D

8. C

9. D

10. A.

11. B

12. D

13. A

14. C

15. B

16. E

17. D

18. C.

19. B

20. A

21. X - Erasure - notice the Rick Roll as part of the link. As one of the respondents also noted - x marks the spot too. But I was too dumb to realize it. 



Sunday, November 1, 2020

Reading December 2020!


 

Hey everyone - hope you're ready for a new reading list!

MSK Requisites - 33, 34, 35, 36

Don't forget to to take the November quiz!

EVMS Quiz November 2020

 Unofficial EVMS Reading Quiz Part 1

for 2020-2021



Everyone - Welcome Back! It has obviously been a crazy year for myself and everyone. But we are going to resume everyone's favorite monthly radiology reading quiz! Answers are due 11/07/2020 by Midnight!

1. The most important imaging in musculoskeletal tumors includes:

  1. PET-CT

  2. Radiograph and MRI

  3. MRI

  4. CT and NM MDP scan

  5. The Radiograph


2. In the setting of osseous malignancy, secondary malignancy refers to:

  1. A malignant transformation of a benign lesion

  2. A metastatic lesion

  3. Second primary lesion

  4. Recurrent lesion

  5. Osteoblastoma


3. The _____ relies heavily on the input of the radiologist and orthopedic oncologist

  1. Pediatrician

  2. Radiation oncologist

  3. Pathologist

  4. General surgeon

  5. Plastic surgeon


4. Describing a lesion as aggressive:

  1. Always means malignant

  2. Refers to local behavior of tumor

  3. Describes a Type I lesion

  4. Means there are skip lesions

  5. Describes Type 3 lesion always


5. Endosteal Scalloping:

  1. Always malignant

  2. Wide zone of transition margin of destruction of the outer table

  3. Sharply marginated destruction of inner margin of cortical bone by medullary tumor

  4. Seen only in cortically based lesions

  5. Always benign


6. Tumor Margin/Pattern of Destruction:

  1. Margin decided by most frequent type of margin

  2. Type 2 lesion has a moth eaten appearance.

  3. Lytic lesion without a sclerotic rim and wide zone of transition = Type 1B lesion

  4. Type 1 lesions are always benign

  5. Zone of transition has no bearing on determining Type 1 lesions


7. Bone Lesions

  1. Age has no impact on the differential diagnosis

  2. Periostitis is only seen in bone tumors

  3. 50% of cortical bone must be destroyed before lytic lesions can be seen on x-ray

  4. CT can be used to determine type of calcification if unsure on radiograph

  5. Cortical breakthrough is often a benign finding


8. Differential diagnosis for low on T2 include all the following except:

  1. PVNS
  2. Air
  3. Purulent material
  4. Antibiotic laden methacrylate beads
  5. Amyloidosis

9. 15 yo male who presents with right lower leg pain predominately at night and relieved by aspirin. Xray shows a lesion in the tibia - what is the best description of the likely lesion:


  1. Type 3 lesion 

  2. Central lucency measuring 2.5 cm with mild peripheral sclerosis

  3. Type 2 lesion with sunburst periostitis. 

  4. Central lucency that is 5 mm with dense reactive sclerosis in the cortex

  5. Central lucency that is 5 mm with dense reactive sclerosis in the medullary space.


10. By imaging, it is very difficult to differentiate between what of the following lesions:


  1. Adamantinoma, Cortical Fibrous Dysplasia, Osteofibrous Dysplasia

  2. Adamantinoma, Medullary Fibrous Dysplasia, Osteofibrous Dysplasia

  3. Adamantinoma, Osteoid Osteoma, Osteofibrous Dysplasia

  4. Adamantinoma, Osteoid Osteoma, Cortical Fibrous Dysplasia

  5. Osteosarcoma, Ewing Sarcoma, Enostosis


11. Gardner Syndrome commonly has what:


  1. Numerous bone islands

  2. Osteoma(s)

  3. Ewing Sarcoma

  4. Osteofibrous Dysplasia


12. A patient with symptomatic scoliosis is noted to have a lytic lesion on x-ray in the spine and there is “flare” phenomenon on MRI. What lesion would you consider:


  1. Enostosis

  2. Osteoid Osteoma

  3. Hamartoma

  4. Osteoblastoma

  5. Adamantinoma


13. Osteosarcoma


  1. X-ray defines the lesion, MRI decides surgical treatment and looks for same bone mets, CT of chest for pulmonary mets, NM bone scan for distant bone mets

  2. Periosteal osteosarcoma is more frequent than parosteal osteosarcoma

  3. Secondary osteosarcoma has better prognosis than primary

  4. Myositis ossificans is centrally dense an peripherally less mature and less dense as a zoning phenomenon

  5. Radiation is the best treatment


14. Parosteal osteosarcoma


  1. Most frequently seen in children under 10

  2. Intramedullary communication is commonly seen on plain film but hard to visualize on MRI

  3. Slow growing

  4. Terrible prognosis

  5. Uncommon to wrap around the bone with a cleft


15. Telangiectatic Osteosarcoma is diagnosed on biopsy. What helped differentiate osteosarcoma from ABC or Giant cell tumor?


  1. Fluid-fluid levels

  2. Nodular soft tissue enhancement on MRI

  3. Expansile lesion

  4. The patient is 30

  5. Pulmonary metastases


16. A secondary osteosarcoma is found in a patient with 1% chance of having this lesion but represents a large percentage of all patients who have secondary osteosarcoma? What is the primary process?


  1. Osteoblastoma

  2. Chondrosarcoma

  3. Chondroblastoma

  4. Chordoma

  5. Pagets


17. All are true about Osteochondroma except

  1. Bursa formation can be a painful complication

  2. Aneurysmal formation of arteries can be seen typically after growth ends

  3. Cartilage cap in adults should be less than 1 cm

  4. Cortex of the osteochondroma has continuity with the medullary space of the bone of origin

  5. MHE is autosomal dominant


18. Enchondromas

  1. Chondrosarcoma is a common malignant transformation for enchondromas of the finger

  2. Pathologic fractures are commonly treated with curettage

  3. It is very difficult to differentiate enchondroma from a low grade chondrosarcoma solely by imaging

  4. Commonly found in the axial skeleton of water nymphs throwing swords to young Arthurian knights

  5. Ollier Disease has phleboliths


19. 15yo child with shoulder pain. Xray of a chondroblastoma:

  1. Diaphyseal lesion with sclerotic margin 

  2. Epiphyseal with sclerotic margin and MRI may appear more aggressive than the x-ray appearance

  3. Metaphyseal lesion with very aggressive periosteal reaction and commonly metastasizes at diagnosis

  4. Epiphyseal lesion treated with wide excision

  5. Epiphyseal lesion with spiculated but geographic margin 


20. 13 yo boy with epiphyseal lesion which is lytic with geographic margin. On MRI, fluid-fluid levels are noted.

  1. Could represent a chondroblastoma with ABC

  2. Enchondroma until proven otherwise.

  3. Juxtacortical chondroma

  4. Trevor Disease


Bonus Question: Which of the following artists have I not seen in concert?