Welcome Back to the EVMS Unofficial Journal Club Quiz!
2021-2022
Quiz Results will be Due 11/3/2021 by midnight in my email.
1. The standard CT protocol for evaluation of a patient with hemoptysis should extend from the lower neck through what anatomic landmark?
a. Aortic bifurcation.
b. Diaphragm.
c. Renal arteries.
d. Celiac axis.
2. What is the normal diameter of bronchial arteries?
a. <0.5 mm.
b. 0.5–2 mm.
c. 2–3.5 mm.
d. 3.5–5.0 mm.
3. From what vascular supply do pseudoaneurysms causing hemoptysis most commonly arise?
a. Nonbronchial systemic veins.
b. Pulmonary veins.
c. Pulmonary arterial tree.
d. Bronchial arteries.
4. What is the most common cause of a pseudoaneurysm?
a. Direct invasion from tumors.
b. Infection.
c. Iatrogenic injury.
d. Inflammation from vasculitis, radiation therapy, or blunt or penetrating trauma.
5. What is the most common cause of parenchymal destruction that results in hemoptysis?
a. Interstitial lung disease.
b. Infarction.
c. Tumor necrosis.
d. Acute infectious pneumonia.
6. When using 100 kVp rather than 120 kVp at CT angiography (CTA) with iodinated intravenous contrast material, which of the following best describes attenuation?
a. Attenuation at 100 kVp is lower than at 120 kVp.
b. Attenuation at 100 kVp is higher than at 120 kVp.
c. The attenuation is the same, regardless of the kilovolt peak setting used.
d. The contrast attenuation is not depicted.
7. Which of the following is the most common cause of acute aortic syndrome?
a. Classic aortic dissection.
b. Penetrating atherosclerotic ulcer (PAU).
c. Acute intramural hematoma (IMH).
d. Mycotic aneurysm.
8. Which of the following entities could cause a PAU?
a. Trauma.
b. Infection.
c. Ulcerated atheromatous plaque.
d. Classic dissection.
9. What type of dissection is depicted in Figure 26f, according to the classification by Svensson et al?
a. Not in classification.
b. Type 1.
c. Type 2.
d. Type 3.
10. Stage 1 of the elephant trunk procedure entails performing which of the following maneuvers?
a. Arch grafting and aortic debranching.
b. Aortic valve replacement.
c. Cabol procedure.
d. Endovascular repair of descending aorta.
11. What is cited as the most common site of iatrogenic tracheobronchial injuries such as those caused by bronchoscopic procedures?
a. Cartilaginous portion of the distal thoracic trachea.
b. Membranous portion of the proximal thoracic trachea.
c. Origin of the right main bronchus.
d. Anterior cervical trachea.
12. In Figures 8a and 8b, what imaging finding is seen after tracheostomy?
a. Normal tracheostomy tube cuff.
b. Normal cricothyroid membrane anatomy.
c. Herniation of the tracheostomy cuff because of a posterior membrane stylet injury.
d. Expected anterior cartilaginous tracheostomy defect.
13. What are the most common sites of blunt force tracheobronchial injury?
a. Cervical trachea and laryngotrachea.
b. Proximal intrathoracic trachea and left bronchus.
c. Intrathoracic mid trachea and right bronchus.
d. Distal trachea, proximal main bronchi, and carina.
14. What is cited as an increasingly supported type of management for a 1.5-cm laceration of the posterior membrane without esophageal herniation?
a. Nonsurgical treatment.
b. Surgical treatment.
c. Physical therapy.
d. Antibiotic regimen.
15. What is the correct placement of an endotracheal tube cuff in patients with a tracheobronchial injury?
a. It should never be advanced beyond the injury.
b. Inflation of the cuff distal to the injury is usually preferable.
c. Inflation of the cuff proximal to the injury is usually preferable.
d. A chest drain should be inserted, but no tube should be placed.
16. The ankle fracture seen in Figure 7 involves what mechanism of injury defined in the Dias-Tachdjian classification system?
a. Supination-inversion.
b. Supination–external rotation.
c. Pronation–external rotation.
d. Supination–plantar flexion.
17. What fracture type is classified as a transitional ankle fracture?
a. Salter-Harris type I fracture of the distal fibula.
b. Salter-Harris type III fracture of the medial malleolus.
c. Juvenile Tillaux fracture.
d. Avulsion fracture of the lateral malleolus.
18. What lower extremity bone fracture is most commonly associated with tibiotalar dislocation in children?
a. Calcaneal fracture.
b. Tibial fracture.
c. Fibular fracture.
d. Talar fracture.
19. Avascular necrosis, when associated with displacement or a high-energy injury mechanism, is a common complication of what fracture type?
a. Tibial plafond fracture.
b. Talar fracture.
c. Calcaneal fracture.
d. Distal phalangeal fracture.
20. Which of the following CT findings indicates the need for a surgical treatment approach to injury of the foot and ankle?
a. Isolated fibular fracture.
b. Minimally (<2 mm) displaced Lisfranc injury.
c. Extra-articular calcaneal fracture.
d. Physeal widening of greater than 3 mm.
